Question:
Is it possible to bind a subdomain to a port?
anonymous
2013-03-29 13:36:36 UTC
I have a domain and server, and for example i want to bind a subdomain to X.X.X.X:25565, and then the domain and subdomain would look like this: play.???.com.
So if a user connects to play.???.com it will be redirected to X.X.X.X:25565
My only question is, Is this possible?
Four answers:
Rebecca
2013-03-29 14:24:30 UTC
No. Ultimately any host name, subdomain or not, must resolve to an IP address and only an IP address - no port because their may well be multiple services running in the most general case. HTTP specifically allows for overloading via CNAME entries (or indeed additional A records - not a problem), but that is a feature of the protocol (where each request includes the domain name used) rather than a deeper network facility at play.
anonymous
2013-03-29 13:49:06 UTC
No. That is not the way it works. For each domain (a sub domain has to be treated as a different domain) you need to set up a DNS setting as at least a CNAME on the main domain address of the server. Then you need to set the vhosts.d/configfile for that domain (or the httpd.conf, but that is now deprecated) to the correct VirtualHost (subdomain.maindomain.tld), then the correct DocumentRoot and path, then the Directory and path. This will require your server to have the switch set. Then whatever domain the visitor has called will select the correct DocumentRot directory for that domain. If you are using public shared hosting server you will need to arrange this with the hosting company. They will NOT allow this in any other way.
anonymous
2014-03-29 17:01:12 UTC
Hey Buddy,



It might help you in your situation

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Best Regards
anonymous
2013-03-29 13:37:40 UTC
depending on what subdomain you have yes.


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